@Jerky
Paul =/= Jesus.
Therefore the latter said fuck all about homosexuality. It was Paul, who'd never met him, Romans 1 specifically says fuck all about homosexuality, The Ten Commandments say fuck all about homosexuality, because what you rely on - Leviticus - to justify your homophobic bigotry has fuck all to do with Gentiles, ergo your 'God' has fuck all to do with homosexuality: because not even he can come up with a justifiable reason as to why homosexuality is a so-called 'Sin'.
You know full well that your 'Jesus' never actually wrote word one of your 'Christian Bible'. Nor did your 'God'. Unless you can prove that he put pen to paper/fingers to keyboard, proofread (lol, 'Omniscience'), sent the manuscript/Word documents to the printers, then had them bound & sent to the bookshops with the words 'Written by God' on the cover, therefore it was written by flawed, imperfect men: and codified by the early Catholic church; in a way so as to increase their power over the ordinary peons, and wield political power over entire nations.
The KJV - your 'Christian Bible' - is just a weak rip-off of that. And authorised by a Gay king, no less: [i]Queen[/i] James I.
Gay king, thus gay Bible, therefore Gay 'Lord'. Prove me wrong. If you can.
It's probably the reason why your 'Lord' daren't argue the toss with Holland in 2001, the UK in 2013, Ireland & your country last year, re. S-SM becoming completely legal, as per Romans 13:1-5: your 'Lord' himself is as gay as they come; he hung around with twelve men two of whom were sailors. One of said twelve kissed him. Hardly associated with women, if ever (otherwise, what was stopping him from having twelve women as disciples, nay, marrying one...?!), nor did he have a girlfriend. Told others to 'Love your fellow man'. Wore a dress.
Did he actually WRITE that book? Yes or No. Your refusal* to answer 'Yes' - without the empirical secular peer reviewed evidence, as per 1 Thessalonians 5:21 [QJV]: 'Prove all things'; it says it that way, therefore it MEANS it that way. No 'Context' allowed - will be a tacit admission from you that he never did, therefore the philosophical question 'Did God create man or did Man create God?' is finally answered.
...but then, can you prove that your 'Lord' actually [i]existed[/i] to be able to write that book in the first place? I refer you to the early RCC, and their agenda in codifying what would become your 'Christian Bible', Jerko.
No 'Lord', no word saying that homosexuality is a 'Sin'. But then, point out chapter & verse in the NT where your 'Lord' himself - no Paul allowed - says 'Homosexuality is a Sin': verbatim.
You know what you'll be admitting when you can't: and Dizzy Dream being proved right being the least of your problems...! >:D
*- Remember: if you don't answer 'Yes' with the necessary proof to our satisfaction, then you'll be admitting that your 'Lord' DIDN'T actually write that 'Christian Bible' of yours. But then, what was stopping him from just thinking and 'Poof!' Instant 'Word'?! But then, if he can't, then he's not 'Omnipotent', thus he's an inferior being, therefore he's not God, ergo he doesn't exist.
...but you can always prove Dizzy Dream, yours truly & everyone else in FSTDT wrong. We Atheists demand to be proved wrong, and to our satisfaction. Now. Remember: 1 Thessalonians 5:21 QJV....!
