von Ribbentropp #fundie stormfront.org

[OP of the thread "was Hitler too soft on jews ?" - All formatting in the original source]

We know that jews in occupied Palestine do not shy away from ultra harsh punishment for minimal "offenses" or whatever excuse jews quote for their mass murder of the Arab man.

Now Hitler in 1933 was very restrained in his measures to stop jew crime inside of Germany proper.

When Hitler started the boycott of jews on April 1st 1933, Judea had already declared war on Germany weeks earlier.

Should Hitler have been stricter with jews to make them understand that there would be zero tolerance on jew crime & terrorism?

Some historians argue that Germany would have been better off with a zero tolerance policy against jew crime.

It does make sense in the light of events in Palestine!

* What you think?

32 comments

Confused?

So were we! You can find all of this, and more, on Fundies Say the Darndest Things!

To post a comment, you'll need to Sign in or Register. Making an account also allows you to claim credit for submitting quotes, and to vote on quotes and comments. You don't even need to give us your email address.