phiwum #fundie internationalskeptics.com

Let's assume for a moment that we don't choose what we desire, even in normal situations. I don't recall wanting to like accordian music, for instance, but I am cursed with that socially awkward taste (still, Hendrix sounds good covered by an accordian band, honest). If this is the case, then giving someone an additional desire isn't really about taking away their right to rational self-determination, since this right doesn't include choosing what one wants. Such choices are effectively arbitrary to begin with, so what harm is there in having someone else cause such a desire in you?

So, let us suppose that causing someone to love me is not obviously causing them to have a worse life. If this is the case, what harm has been done in giving her a love potion without her informed consent? I'm especially interested in an answer that is consistent with the instrumental presumption: we do not deliberate over our final ends. Can an instrumentalist nonetheless claim that it is wrong to sneak someone a love potion? On what grounds?

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